Request for approval: EUPL (European Union Public Licence)
Matthew Flaschen
matthew.flaschen at gatech.edu
Sat Mar 15 16:47:45 UTC 2008
Russ Nelson wrote:
> Matthew Flaschen writes:
> > In my opinion, it would be unwise of the OSI to approve the non-English
> > language versions at this time. This is because translation errors can
> > affect the meaning, the majority of the OSI board is only fluent in
> > English (as far as I know), and hiring independent translators familiar
> > with legal terms would be cost-prohibitive.
> >
> > This means, "The European Commission may put into force translations"
> > must be removed. Particularly with the binding "new version" clause,
> > this is not satisfactory.
>
> You are correct, however, there are other potential solutions. For
> example, one solution would be to say that a licensee may switch
> between translation of a license.
But what if translation X, say, doesn't require providing source code?
Then, if someone gets code under the English translation and releases
their derivative work under translation X without source, the code
becomes non-free. That defeats the intention of the license. Even if
the recipient then switches to English, it's questionable whether they
can demand source code.
> That way, when we approve the English-language version, someone always has recourse to a license
> which is OSI-approved.
This also assumes the translation switching mechanism is correctly
written in all licenses.
> > That clause, stating that a "new version of the Licence becomes binding
> > for You as soon as You become aware of its publication."
> >
> > allows you to make the license non-OSD compliant at any time, by putting
> > out a new version or translation.
>
> Yes, this clause is not acceptable. *I* could accept "new version of
> the License becomes finding for You as soon as You become aware of its
> approval by the OSI as an Open Source license." but I recognize that
> other people may feel differently.
I would still object to that, and I don't think OSI has approved such a
license. It would seem to run afoul of OSD #3, which says:
"and must allow them to be distributed under *the same terms as the
license of the original* software." [emphasis added]
> > First, I think that law is itself fairly draconian, and would have a
> > chilling effect if enforced. See for instance the unofficial Debian
> > Dissident Test (http://people.debian.org/~bap/dfsg-faq.html), which
> > says, "Consider a dissident in a totalitarian state who wishes to share
> > a modified bit of software with fellow dissidents, but does not wish to
> > reveal the identity of the modifier..."
>
> Free Software in a totalitarian state? Why don't we also imagine
> frozen steam at the same time?
I'd rather have free software in a totalitarian state than no free
software in a totalitarian state.
Anyway, the requirement shouldn't be written into the license.
> Sure it is. It's just a choice of legal systems, just a
> jurisdiction. Otherwise you're asking lawyers to draft a legal
> document without knowing what system of laws it will be subject to.
> Let's play a card game without Hoyle's and see if we can do it without
> arguments.
It's fine to specify EU law if the licensor is in Europe. But
otherwise, it should be the law of the licensor's residence.
Matt Flaschen
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