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</o:shapelayout></xml><![endif]--></head><body lang=EN-US link="#0563C1" vlink="#954F72" style='word-wrap:break-word'><div class=WordSection1><p class=MsoNormal style='margin-left:.5in'>Mike Milinkovich wrote: “Many lawyers don't like them. In my experience there were lots of lawyers who found the EPL-1.0 USA-centric because of its choice of law provision and avoided it as a result. E.g. why would a German automaker want to contribute code under a license that stipulates US law when they go to great lengths to shield their company from US law? Telling them that the lawsuit could still proceed in a German court did not give them much comfort.”<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Pam and others, <o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>Does anyone on here believe that omitting a “choice of law” provision entirely from a software license will necessarily result in the license being sent to the licensee’s jurisdiction for court enforcement? How does that default work? Is it magic?<o:p></o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal><o:p> </o:p></p><p class=MsoNormal>/Larry<o:p></o:p></p></div></body></html>