[License-discuss] OSI definition

Johnny A. Solbu johnny at solbu.net
Mon Jan 18 18:01:05 UTC 2021


On Monday 18 January 2021 02:23, Kevin P. Fleming wrote:
> On Sun, Jan 17, 2021 at 8:13 PM Tenorgil <tenorgil at gmail.com> wrote:
> >
> > Can you clarify this phrase
> >
> > You can basically do whatever you want, as long as you are not a company with shareholders employing lots of people
> >
> > What does it mean if “you” (presumably a person) is not a company (a legal concept). If all the employees of a company can use the code, what does it mean that the company can’t?
> 
> It's not relevant. The employees are free to 'use the code' in their
> individual capacities, but the company cannot. For example the company
> cannot 'use the code' on its internal computer systems, which are
> owned by the company and not the employees. Also the company cannot
> 'use the code' in its products, which are products of the company and
> not its employees. Those employees, when acting on behalf of the
> company (doing their jobs) are agents of the company, not individuals,
> and the license terms apply to the company.

That right there makes it incompatible with the Open Source Definition.
It discriminates against fields of endeavor.

I remember the now 20 year old documentary «Revolution OS». Bruce Perens who co-founced «The Open Source Initiative» says in the documentary that the example he use on section 5, is that you can't stop an abortion clinic or an anti-abortion activist from using the software.

On section 6 Bruce says (in the documentary) that it has to be useable in a business as well as in a school.

The LeftCopy license violates this, and is therefore Not an Open Source licence.
My Not So Humble opinon is that this restriction makes any software using this license proprietary, and should be avoided.

-- 
Johnny A. Solbu
web site,   https://www.solbu.net
PGP key ID: 0x4F5AD64DFA687324
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