Are implicit dual-licensing agreements inherently anti-open?
David Barrett
dbarrett at quinthar.com
Thu Jul 14 00:52:42 UTC 2005
On Wed, 13 Jul 2005 5:37 pm, Wilson, Andrew wrote:
> To my way of thinking, if a negotiation is required to create a valid
> derivative
> of two works which are covered by the same license, then said
> license is not really open source.
True, but "openness" is not boolean. I agree, it's more open to have
same-license merges always work. It's be even *more* open to freely
merge between different licenses (which the OSI doesn't require). But
it's a sliding scale.
The real question, it would seem, is "is it sufficiently open for the
OSI to approve it?".
If the 10 principles are our guide, I see no requirement for
same-license code merging, and thus I think it's ok.
-david
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